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My husband and I married in January. I’m 22, he is 25. I had my first credit card at 18, my husband at 22… so we’ve got some credit history. My husband makes about $ 37,000 a year before taxes and I’m a student. We are living in a house right now that we own (no liens or anything) that was given to us, and it’s worth about $ 100,000. We wanted to buy our own home and rent the house we are currently living in. We each paid $ 15 for our credit reports online… his are – 636, 665, and 640… mine are – 616, 636, 627. Then we applied for a mortgage loan at a local “financial services” place (not a bank) for an $ 80,000 home loan and was declined.

The “underwriter” told me it was because my husband’s credit score was only a 602. I told him that was wrong because we had just looked at our scores and reports. He told me they look at a different kind of report than what we get from a “personal enquiry”. Is this true? AND– he told me that I had no credit at all appear for my social security number. Well, I’ve had three credit cards (one of them I just used today), an auto loan, and all of our bills are in my name. I know I have credit! Is it just me, or is something not right here?!
we got our reports from and we paid to get the equifax, experian, and transunion scores, all three

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