Long story short, I was issued a judgment in March 2013 for unpaid rent in an apartment that I lived in. I was served, went to court, and moved out of the apartment before I was thrown out.
Fast forward to July 2015, I was trying to move into a new apartment in a new city and the judgment pops up on my credit. I contact the complex to set up an arrangement to pay the judgment in full to satisfy the debt of $ 2700. However, it was like running in circles to get a straight answer. The apartment complex was under new ownership and couldn’t easily find a record of me as a tenant in their records.
I was adamant to get this paid off and lessen the sting on my report, so the complex did some digging and found the lawyer that originally filed the judgment on behalf of the apartment complex while under previous ownership. I contacted the lawyer and made arrangements to pay the debt in full (didn’t know any better). I paid the full amount in 7/2015.
I checked my credit report and here is how it currently reports:
Equifax: Filed (3/2013) // Satisfied (3/2013)
TransUnion: Filed (3/2013) // not reporting as satisfied
Experian: No record of judgment
I got the lawyer to mail me a notice of satisfaction in 07/2015, but my reports still look like nothing has happened. I e-mailed the lawyer (GW attempt) asking him to file a motion to vacate due to satisfaction – I’m trying to clean up my credit in attempts to buy a house in the future. This morning got a scathing phone call back telling me that I didn’t indicate any error so there is no “legitimate basis” for filing one and asking me to not contact him regarding this again since he cannot help me. [Side note: through this entire process, he has been entirely insufferable to work with… although I realize he is not representing me, but gosh, just awful.]
He did, however, state that if I thought there was fault/error then I could file a motion to vacate and he would look at it. He said if he “thought there was merit to it” he would not oppose it.
I say all that to ask this… DO I HAVE ANY GROUNDS TO FILE A MOTION TO VACATE? I figured I would ask, especially given the fact that the apartment complex which sued me basically doesn’t exist anymore (new ownership). If not, should I dispute it with the bureaus? I would appreciate it more than you know if someone would weigh in and give me some perspective.