Hello! Two cards: 1 has a 6k limit with $ 4,400 on it (a bal transfer) and another has a 12.5k limit with $ 4,500 on it (also a bal transfer). I have an opportunity with the larger limit card to do a balance transfer for the full amount of the first card. The first card has to be paid by July of 2016, but if I transfer it I have until Mar. 2017 to pay off the 8k (which I can do). The question is: Is it better to have a 0 balance on the 6k card but have a 72% usage on the other card (with 0 interest). Sorry it’s confusing. Also, I have 8 cards total and there is basically no balance on any of the other ones, so my credit is very good. No other cards are ofering a 0 balance transfer so I can spread them out more. Thanks in advance!